So the other week, a friend of mine (I'll call him Carl if I ever have to talk about him) asks two of us "Would You Rather: Immortality, or Invulnerability?"
Now before I could chime in with my response, my other friend (I'll call this one John) responds by saying he would choose Invulnerability, because he effectively cannot die. By his logic, at all. Not of Old Age, not by Killing him via outside means, he just can't die. This is where I just can't help but question: what the hell? Last I checked, Invulnerability only meant one half of that.
Despite evidence to the contrary (like...Y'know, the actual question itself having the context of "These two options are different, so you're not getting both for the price of one" being one piece we used) John keeps defending his side of the argument by saying that "We never clarified the specific definitions," and "Because of the fact we weren't clear, he used his own definition for the question." and "That the General definitions didn't apply to the question he was given." and then saying that the whole issue just devolves in to politics in the aspect that "Politics use their own definitions if it isn't presented with the definitions initially?"
I really don't try to dwell on stuff like this, but I can't help but wonder: Does he have a point on his side of the argument, or was he just failing in his defense once he was caught in the wrong and didn't want to admit it?
Just an issue I can't help but be bugged about. The logic just....feels stupid to me...
Now before I could chime in with my response, my other friend (I'll call this one John) responds by saying he would choose Invulnerability, because he effectively cannot die. By his logic, at all. Not of Old Age, not by Killing him via outside means, he just can't die. This is where I just can't help but question: what the hell? Last I checked, Invulnerability only meant one half of that.
Despite evidence to the contrary (like...Y'know, the actual question itself having the context of "These two options are different, so you're not getting both for the price of one" being one piece we used) John keeps defending his side of the argument by saying that "We never clarified the specific definitions," and "Because of the fact we weren't clear, he used his own definition for the question." and "That the General definitions didn't apply to the question he was given." and then saying that the whole issue just devolves in to politics in the aspect that "Politics use their own definitions if it isn't presented with the definitions initially?"
I really don't try to dwell on stuff like this, but I can't help but wonder: Does he have a point on his side of the argument, or was he just failing in his defense once he was caught in the wrong and didn't want to admit it?
Just an issue I can't help but be bugged about. The logic just....feels stupid to me...