That’s not what the Amendment says, and your claim that it doesn’t require a conviction is entirely theoretical. That runs contrary to how the law works in the country at large. If the framers wanted to make an exception to Due Process, they would’ve specified that. Whether a person participated in an insurrection/rebellion or not, or whether they gave aid or comfort to enemies of the state, needs to be evidenced and proven, that’s a perfectly reasonable conclusion. If that wasn’t the case, there’s a whole lot of actors both foreign and domestic who could be considered enemies, and a lot of state agents that have “given them comfort” in one way or another. Claiming that Section 3 operates in isolation from the other sections of the Amendment or law in general immediately makes it vague enough to apply to just about anyone.Good thing it's an opinion article, and smarter/more qualified people on both sides of the aisle disagree with that assessment. The 14th does not require a conviction because of the specificity and severity of the crimes it applies to.
The only thing that speaks in support of that theory is that people who actually did participate in self-evident insurrection or rebellion (the Confederates, who were broadly given amnesty just 4 years after the fact via the Amnesty Act of 1872) were treated as such, but they generally didn’t seek public office and issued requests to Congress to have such limitations removed if they did, so their guilt was understood and self-admitted. Trump is denying any guilt and it’s not clear whether what happened was an insurrection/rebellion or not - the F.B.I. did not find any significant evidence of an overarching plot to overthrow the government. The Civil War *was* self-evident, it was an actual military conflict. January 6th is not self-evident, and could easily qualify as a riot by an angry mob of discontent, but otherwise disorganised citizens. The fact that Trump didn’t actually tell anyone to attack anything (quite the opposite, he urged the gathered crowd to remain peaceful) also doesn’t speak in your favour - Confederates most definitely gave soldiers orders, and there’s clean cut evidence of that. It seems to me that you want to treat Trump more harshly than Americans who fought an actual bloody war, which makes little sense.
Now, you might be asking why the Confederates weren’t prosecuted first under 18 U.S. Code § 2383 as I suggest, and the answer is pretty simple - they weren’t time travellers. The statute is based on Title 18 and simply didn’t exist. These matters were previously governed via the Enforcement Act (1870), if I remember correctly. To me the case is pretty obvious here. The 14th Amendment specifies that Congress is in charge of enacting its provisions by way of legislation. It has done so, by introducing a statute specifically about insurrection and rebellion on the basis of which one might be found guilty of it. If we conveniently ignore its existence then there’s no reason to have a U.S. Code at all since apparently we don’t need to find anyone guilty of anything to treat them as guilty.